Ultimate Collection of 500 Chemistry Questions

Chirag Gupta

3 days ago

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Chemistry serves as a cornerstone of scientific understanding, playing a vital role in various fields and examinations, particularly the NEET and JEE. As students prepare for these competitive exams, mastering chemistry concepts is crucial for achieving success. In this post, we present a comprehensive collection of the top 500 chemistry questions tailored specifically for NEET and JEE aspirants, to understand the basic concepts of subject. This resource aims to challenge students’ knowledge, enhance their problem-solving skills, and ultimately boost their confidence as they approach exam day.

Note: Kindly skip those questions which are from the out of syllabus topics.

500 Chemistry Questions for JEE and NEET

1. The bond length between hybridised carbon atom and other carbon atom is minimum in:
(a) Propane
(b) Butane
(c) Propene
(d) Propyne

2. The number of nodal planes present in σ*s antibonding orbitals is:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 0
(d) 3

3. The hybrid state of sulphur in SO₂ molecule is:
(a) sp²
(b) sp³
(c) sp
(d) sp³d

4. Which one of the following does not have sp² hybridised carbon?
(a) Acetone
(b) Acetic acid
(c) Acetonitrile
(d) Acetamide

5. Boron shows diagonal relation with:
(a) Al
(b) C
(c) Si
(d) Sn

6. Catenation property is maximum in:
(a) Phosphorus
(b) Carbon
(c) Sulphur
(d) Zinc

7. Which one of the following is an electrophilic reagent?
(a) BF₃
(b) KH₃
(c) H₂O
(d) None of these

8. The chemistry of lithium is very similar to that of magnesium even though they are placed in different groups. Its reason is:
(a) Both are found together in nature
(b) Both have nearly the same size
(c) Both have similar electronic configuration
(d) The ratio of their charge and size (i.e. charge density) is nearly the same

9. The element with atomic number 35 belongs to:
(a) d – Block
(b) f – Block
(c) p – Block
(d) s – Block

10. Pure H₂O₂ is:
(a) Semi – solid
(b) Liquid
(c) Solid
(d) Gas

11. Alkali metals give a __________ when dissolved in liquid ammonia.
(a) Deep blue solution
(b) Colourless
(c) Red colour
(d) None of the above

12. K₂[Fe(CN)₆] is a/an:
(a) double salt
(b) complex salt
(c) acid
(d) base

13. Which of the following compounds has tetrahedral geometry?
(a) [Ni(CN)₄]^2-
(b) [Pd(CN)₄]^2-
(c) [PdCl₄]^2-
(d) [NiCl₄]^2-

14. The number of possible isomers for the complex [Co(C₂O₄)₂(NH₃)₂]:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

15. Oxidation number of gold metal is:

(a) +1

(b) 0

(d) All of these

16. Shape of d-orbital is:

(a) spherical

(b) dumb bell

(d) none of these

17. Bessemer converter is used in the manufacture of:

(a) Pig iron

(b) Steel

(d) Cast iron

18. Carbon and hydrogen are detected by heating the compound with which of the following?

(a) Copper (II) oxide

(b) Iron (II) oxide

(d) Copper (I) oxide

19. A dibromo derivative of an alkane reacts with sodium metal to form an alicyclic hydrocarbon. The derivative is:

(a) 2, 2-dibromobutane

(b) 1, 1-dibromopropane

(d) 1, 2-dibromoethane

20. The position of double bond in alkenes can be located by:

(a) Hydrogenation of oil

(b) Ozonolysis

(d) Hydration

21. If two compounds have the same empirical formula but different molecular formula they must have:

(a) Different percentage composition

(b) Different molecular weight

(d) Same vapour density

22. Identify the chiral molecule among the following:

(a) Isopropyl alcohol

(b) 2-pentanol

(d) Isobutyl alcohol

23. Good conductor of electricity and heat is:

(a) Anthracite coke

(b) Diamond

(d) Charcoal

24. The oxidation of toluene to benzaldehyde by chromyl chloride is called:

(a) Etard reaction

(b) Riemer-Tiemann reaction

(d) Cannizzaro’s reaction

25. There is a large difference in the boiling points of butanal and butanal-1-ol due to:

(a) intermolecular hydrogen bonding in butan-1-ol

(b) intermolecular hydrogen bonding in butanal

(d) resonance shown by butanal

26. The S in buna-S refers to:

(a) Sulphur

(b) Styrene

(d) Salicylate

27. Which of the following are thermoplastic polymers?

(a) Polythene, urea-formaldehyde, polyvinyls

(b) Bakelite, polythene, polystyrene

(d) Urea-formaldehyde, polystyrene, bakelite

28. Benzene diazonium chloride on reaction with phenol in weakly basic medium gives:

(a) diphenyl ether

(b) p-hydroxyazobenzene

(d) Benzene

29. Arenes do not show:

(a) Delocalisation of pi-electrons

(b) Greater stability

(d) Electrophilic additions

30. An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of:

(a) succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid

(b) cytochrome oxidase by cyanide

(d) carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide

31. A mixture of benzaldehyde and formaldehyde on heating with aqueous NaOH solution gives:

(a) benzyl alcohol + sodium formate

(b) sodium benzoate + methanol

(d) sodium benzoate + sodium formate

32. Acetamide can be converted to methenamine by which of the following reactions?

(a) Stephen’s reaction

(b) Hoffmann bromamide reaction

(d) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis

33. Artificial sweetener which is stable only under cold conditions only is:

(a) saccharine

(b) sucralose

(d) alitame

34. Isomerism that arises out of the difference in spatial arrangement of atoms or groups about the doubly bonded carbon atoms are called? (In specific)

(a) Structural Isomerism

(b) Stereo Isomerism

(d) Optical Isomerism

35. Which of the following statements about nuclear fission is always correct?

(a) Very little energy is released in fission processes

(b) Nuclear fission is an energetically favorable process for heavy atoms

(d) In fission reactions, a neutron is split into a proton and an electron.

36. What is known as Autooxidation?

(a) Formation of H₂O by the oxidation of H₂O₂

(b) Formation of H₂O₂ by the oxidation of H₂O

(d) None of the above

37. Find the mole fraction of a solute in 1 m aqueous solution.

(a) 0.0354

(b) 1.770

(d) 0.0177

38. Find the amount of dibasic acid with mol. weight 200 required to produce 100 ml of 0.1 N aqueous solution.

(a) 2 g

(b) 10 g

(d) 1 g

39. What is the molar entropy change for melting of ice at 0℃, if ΔH_f = 1.435 kcal/mol?

(a) 0.526 cal/mol K

(b) 5.26 cal/mol K

(d) 21.04 cal/mol K

40. In chemical equation H₂ (g) + I₂ (g) ⇌ 2HI (g) the equilibrium constant Kp depends on:

(a) total pressure

(b) catalyst used

(d) temperature

41. Fused NaCl on electrolysis gives _________ on cathode.

(a) Chlorine

(b) Sodium

(d) Hydrogen

42. Which one of the following is non-crystalline or amorphous?

(a) Diamond

(b) Graphite

(d) Common Salt

43. 3 g of ethyl alcohol is dissolved in 54 g of water. The mole fraction of ethyl alcohol in water is:

(a) 0.143

(b) 0.110

(d) 1.12

44. Tyndall effect confirms the:

(a) gravity effect on the colloidal solution particles

(b) light scattering by the colloidal solution particles

(d) Brownian motion of the colloidal solution particles

45. Molecular weight of a gas that diffuses twice as rapidly as the gas with molecular weight 64 is:

(a) 6.4

(b) 64

(d) 8

46. Which of the following will have the lowest boiling point?

(a) 2-MethylButane

(b) 2-MethylPropane

(d) n-Pentane

47. Among the following the maximum covalent character is shown by the compound:

(a) MgCl₂

(b) FeCl₂

(d) AlCl₃

48. Among the following mixtures, dipole-dipole as the major interaction, is present in:

(a) benzene and ethanol

(b) acetonitrile and acetone

(d) benzene and carbon tetrachloride

49. Elements found from sea water is:

(a) Magnesium

(b) Sodium

(d) None of these

50. The shape of XeF₄ is:

(a) Tetrahedral

(b) Square planar

(d) Linear

51. The correct order of first ionization potential among following elements, Be, B, C, N and O is:

(a) B < Be < C < O < N

(b) B < Be < C < N < O

(d) Be < B < C < O < N

52. Representative elements are those which belong to:

(a) p and d – Block

(b) s and d – Block

(d) s and f – Block

53. The freezing point of heavy water is:

(a) 0°C

(b) 3.8°C

(d) 1°C

54. Solvays process is used for the manufacture of:

(a) NaOH

(b) Na₂CO₃.10H₂O

(d) Na₂O₂

55. The oxidation state of nickel in |(Ni(CO₄)] is:

(a) 1

(b) 4

(d) 3

56. Which of the following is not a neutral ligand?

(a) H₂O

(b) NH₃

(d) CO₂

57. Lanthanoid contraction is due to increase in:

(a) atomic number

(b) effective nuclear charge

(d) valence electrons

58. Which of the following is an example of a thermoplastic?

(a) Melamine

(b) Epoxide

(d) Acetal

59. What is Lassaigne’s test extract called as?

(a) Fusion extract

(b) Sodium fusion extract

(d) Sodium extract

60. Nitrobenzene on reaction with conc. HNO₃/H₂SO₄ at 80 – 100°C forms which one of the following products?

(a) 1, 2-Dinitrobenzene

(b) 1, 3-Dinitrobenzene

(d) 1, 2, 4-Trinitrobenzene

61. Some meta-directing substituents in aromatic substitution are given. Which one is mostdeactivating?

(a) –C≡N

(b) -SO₃H

(d) -NO₂

62. 0.0833mol of carbohydrate of empirical formula CH₂O contains 1g of hydrogen. The molecular formula of the carbohydrate is:

(a) C₅H₁₀O₅

(b) C₃H₄O₃

(d) C₆H₁₂O₆

63. The displacement of electrons in a multiple bond in the presence of an attacking reagent is called:

(a) Inductive effect

(b) Electromeric effect

(d) Hyperconjugation or No-bond resonance or Baker-Nathan effect

64. In which of the following allotropes of carbon, percentage of carbon is maximum?

(a) Wood charcoal

(b) Coconut charcoal

(d) None of these

65. The oxidation of toluene to benzaldehyde by chromyl chloride is called:

(a) Etard reaction

(b) Riemer-Tiemann reaction

(d) Cannizzaro’s reaction

66. The S in buna-S refers to:

(a) Sulphur

(b) Styrene

(d) Salicylate

67. When phenol is treated with excess bromine water it gives:

(a) m-bromophenol

(b) o- and p-bromophenol

(d) 2,4,6-tribromophenol

68. Phenol on reduction with H₂ in the presence of Ni catalyst gives:

(a) Benzene

(b) Toluene

(d) Cyclohexanol

69. Which among the following is not a property of aromatic hydrocarbon?

(a) These compounds have very good aromaticity

(b) These compounds have excellent stability

(d) There exists a strong ratio between carbon and hydrogen

70. Arenes does not undergo:

(a) Dehydrogenation

(b) Coupling reaction

(d) Cycloadditions

71. Insulin is made up of _______ and _______.

(a) glucose and fructose

(b) glucose and fructose

(d) mannose and glucose

72. Enzymes increase the rate of reaction by:

(a) lowering activation energy

(b) increasing activation energy

(d) decreasing temperature and pH

73. What is the common name of butanal?

(a) n-Butanaldehyde

(b) α-Butanaldehyde

(d) α-Butyraldehyde

74. Which of the following compounds will form secondary amine in reaction with LiAlH₄?

(a) Methyl cyanide

(b) Methyl isocyanide

(d) Nitroethane

75. Artificial sweetener which is stable only under cold conditions only is:

(a) saccharine

(b) sucralose

(d) alitame

76. Fluorosis, the bone disease, is caused by the presence of:

(a) Pesticides in water

(b) Fluorides in water

(d) Sulphur dioxide in air

77. Which among the following defines Meso forms of isomers?

(a) Meso form is optically inactive due to external compensation

(b) The molecules of the meso isomers are chiral

(d) It is a single compound

78. Which of the following is yielded when Ethylene glycol is treated with phosphorus tri-iodide?

(a) ethylene di-iodide

(b) ethylene

(d) ethyl iodide

79. Find the conjugate acid of NH₂.

(a) NH₃

(b) NH₄OH

(d) NH₂^–

80. The tendency of an electrode to lose electrons is known as:

(a) Electrode Potential

(b) Reduction Potential

(d) EMF

81. Which of the following statements is true regarding gases?

(a) gases are highly incompressible

(b) gases exert equal pressure on each and every direction

(d) gases have the highest density among the three states of matter

82. If one mole of ammonia contains “y” number of particles, then how many particles does 1 mole of glucose contain?

(a) 2y

(b) 0.5y

(d) y

83. The species which by definition has ZERO standard molar enthalpy of formation at 298 K is:

(a) Br₂(g)

(b) Cl₂(g)

(d) CH₄(g)

84. In a reaction, 2X → Y, the concentration of X decreases from 0.50 M to 0.38 M in 10 min. What is the rate of reaction in Ms^-1 during this interval?

(a) 2 × 10^-4

(b) 4 × 10^-2

(d) 1 × 10^-2

85. Which of the following is a secondary cell?

(a) Leclanche cell

(b) Lead storage battery

(d) All of these

86. In NaCl structure:

(a) all octahedral and tetrahedral sites are occupied

(b) only octahedral sites are occupied

(d) neither octahedral nor tetrahedral sites are occupied

87. If 1.5 grams of a non-volatile solute (MW = 100) is added to 200 ml pure CS₂ (ρ = 1.3 g/cc) whose vapor pressure is 400 mm of Hg at 28.0°C, what is the resulting vapor pressure of the dilute solution?

a) 401.246 mm Hg

b) 398.754 mm Hg

c) 401.754 mm Hg

d) 398.246 mm Hg

88. In addition to non-volatile potassium iodide in water at 298K it is noticed that vapor pressure reducesfrom 23.8 mm Hg to 2.0 cm Hg. What is the mole fraction of solute in the solution?

a) 0.916

b) 0.160

c) 0.084

d) 0.092

89. Which one of the following is a lyophilic colloid?

(a) Milk

(b) Gum

(d) Blood

90. Which of the following types of metals make the most efficient catalyst?

(a) Alkali metals

(b) Transition metals

(d) Alkaline earth metals

91. The value of n in the molecular formula Be_nAl₂Si₆O₁₈ is:

(a) 3

(b) 5

(d) 9

92. Which of the following types of hybridisation leads to three dimensional geometry of bonds aroundthe carbon atom?

(a) sp

(b) sp²

(d) None of these

93. An atom of an element A has three electrons in its outermost orbit and that of B has six electrons inits outermost orbit. The formula of the compound between these two will be:

(a) A₃B₆

(b) A₂B₃

(d) A₂B

94. Main source of helium is:

(a) Air

(b) Radium

(d) Water

95. Which one of the following elements is liquid at normal temperature?

(a) Zinc

(b) Mercury

(d) Water

96. The group number, number of valence electrons, and valency of an element with the atomic number15, respectively, are:

(a) 16, 5 and 2

(b) 15, 5 and 3

(d) 15, 6 and 2

97. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric in character?

(a) SnO₂

(b) CO₂

(d) CaO

98. What is the product of the reaction of H₂O₂ with Cl₂?

(a) O₂ + HOCl

(b) HCl + O₂

(d) HCl + H₂

99. The substance not likely to contain CaCO₃ is:

(a) Dolomite

(b) A marble statue

(d) Sea shells

100. Which of the following ligands form a chelate?

(a) Acetate

(b) Oxalate

(d) Ammonia

101. Which of these is not a neutral ligand?

(a) H₂O

(b) NH₃

(d) CO₂

102. The melting points of Cu, Ag and Au follow the order:

(a) Cu > Ag > Au

(b) Cu >Au > Ag

(d) Ag > Au > Cu

103. Which of the following classes of engineering ceramics generally includes lubricant materials?

(a) Metalloids

(b) Intermetallics

(d) Carbides

104. What is Lassaigne’s test extract called as?

(a) Fusion extract

(b) Sodium fusion extract

(d) Sodium extract

105. The order of decreasing reactivity towards an electrophilic reagent, for the following : (i) Benzene(ii) Toluene (iii) Chlorobenzene (iv) Phenol

(a) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)

(b) (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii)

(d) (iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii)

106. An organic compound which produces a bluish green coloured flame on heating in presence of copper is:

(a) Chlorobenzene

(b) Benzaldehyde

(d) Benzoic acid

107. Which one is the strongest acid among the following?

(a) CH₂FCOOH

(b) CH₂ClCOOH

(d) CHF₂COOH

108. Valency of carbon is:

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) 4

109. The product of hydrolysis of ozonide of 1-butene are:

(a) ethanol only

(b) ethanal and methanal

(d) methanal only

110. α-Hydroxypropanoic acid can be prepared from ethanal by following the steps given in the sequence:

(a) Treat with HCN followed by acidic hydrolysis

(b) Treat with NaHSO₃ followed by reaction with Na₂CO₃

(d) Treat with K₂Cr₂O₇ in presence of sulphuric acid

111. Which of the following are thermoplastic polymers?

(a) Polythene, urea-formaldehyde, polyvinyls

(b) Bakelite, polythene, polystyrene

(d) Urea-formaldehyde, polystyrene, bakelite

112. When two moles of ethyl chloride react with two moles of sodium in the presence of ether what willbe formed?

(a) 2 moles of ethane

(b) 1 moles of ethane

(d) 1 moles of butane

113. Which among these is the simplest example for polycyclic arenes?

(a) Benzacephenanthrylene

(b) Naphthalene

(d) Dibenz-anthracene

114. Arenes are:

(a) volatile

(b) Water soluble

(d) Mostly gases

115. Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?

(a) Uracil

(b) Cytosine

(d) Thymine

116. Hydrolysis of starch occurs with the help of:

(a) Peptidase

(b) Amylase

(d) Lipase

117. The prefix valer- is generally used for naming aldehydes with how many carbon atoms in thestructure?

(a) 3

(b) 4

(d) 6

118. Identify the correct IUPAC name of CH₃-CH=CH-CHO.

(a) But-2-enal

(b) 2-Butenal

(d) Butenal

119. Which of the following compounds will form secondary amine in reaction with LiAlH₄?

(a) Methyl cyanide

(b) Methyl isocyanide

(d) Nitroethane

120. Find the compound which is more basic than aniline.

(a) Diphenylamine

(b) Triphenylamine

(d) p-Nitroaniline

121. Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as:

(a) antiseptic

(b) antipyretic

(d) analgesics

122. Which of the following acts as a sink for CO?

(a) Plants

(b) Haemoglobin

(d) Oceans

123. Which among the following is formed when an alcohol is dehydrated?

(a) alkane

(b) alkyne

(d) aldehyde

124. Which of the following bonds is made up of a large number of organic compounds?

(a) Metallic bond

(b) Dipolar bond

(d) Covalent bond

125. When equal volumes of 0.1 M NaOH and 0.01 M HCl are mixed, the hydroxide ion concentration is:

(a) 7.0

(b) 1.04

(d) 2.0

126. Which of the following processes does not involve oxidation of iron?

(a) Formation of Fe(CO)₅ from Fe

(b) Liberation of H₂ from steam by iron at high temperature

(d) Decolourisation of blue CuSO₄ solution by iron

127. What is the percentage of Nitrogen in the atmosphere approximately?

(a) 78.09

(b) 21

(d) 32

128. What’s the number of particles in 10 moles of hydrochloric acid?

(a) 6.022 x 10²² particles

(b) 6.022 x 10²³ particles

(d) 3.22 x 10²² particles

129. One mole of sucrose contains how many grams of sucrose?

(a) 342g

(b) 343g

(d) 340g

130. The rate constant of a reaction is k=3.28 × 10-4 s-1. Find the order of the reaction.

(a) Zero order

(b) First order

(d) Third order

131. Electrical conductance through metals is called metallic or electronic conductance and is due to the movement of electrons. The electronic conductance depends on:

(a) the nature and structure of the metal

(b) the number of valence electrons per atom

(d) all of these

132. In Zinc blende structure:

(a) zinc ions occupy half of the tetrahedral sites

(b) each Zn^2- ion is surrounded by six sulphide ions

(d) it has fee structure

133. If the relative lowering of pressure of o-xylene is 0.005 due to addition of 0.5 grams of non-volatile solute in 500 grams of solvent, what is the molecular weight of the solute?

(a) 21.3 g/mole

(b) 23.1 g/mole

(d) 1.23 g/mole

134. In addition to non-volatile potassium iodide in water at 298K it is noticed that vapor pressurereduces from 23.8 mm Hg to 2.0 cm Hg. What is the mole fraction of solute in the solution?

(a) 0.916

(b) 0.160

(d) 0.092

135. Presence of traces of arsenious oxide (As₂O₃) in the reacting gases SO₂ and O₃ in presence of plantinised asbestos in contact process acts as:

(a) catalytic promoter

(b) catalytic poison

(d) drying agent

136. In the formation of a molecule which of the following take part in chemical combination?

(a) cation

(b) anion

(d) inner shell electron

137. The outer orbitals of C in ethene molecules can be considered to be hybridized to give three equivalentsp² orbitals. The total number of sigma (s) and pi (p) bonds in ethene molecule is:

(a) 1 sigma (s) and 2 pi (p) bonds
(b) 3 sigma (s) and 2 pi (p) bonds
(c) 4 sigma (s) and 1 pi (p) bonds
(d) 5 sigma (s) and 1 pi (p) bonds

138. In which of the following molecules octet rule is not followed?

(a) NH₃
(b) CH₄
(c) CO₂
(d) NO

139. H₂SO₄ is a/an:

(a) acid
(b) base
(c) alkali
(d) salt

140. Modern periodic table is given by:

(a) Debonair
(b) Mendeleef
(c) Mendel
(d) None of these

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141. Across the period the atomic size decreases due to:

(a) shielding effect
(b) photoelectric effect
(c) increase in nuclear force of attraction
(d) decrease in nuclear force of attraction

142. The first three periods are:

(a) long periods
(b) short periods
(c) moderate periods
(d) all of above

143. Pure H₂O₂ is:

(a) Semi – solid
(b) Liquid
(c) Solid
(d) Gas

144. The basic strength of which hydroxide is maximum?

(a) LiOH
(b) NaOH
(c) Ca(OH)₂
(d) KOH

145. The correct IUPAC name of the coordination compound K₃[Fe(CN)₅NO] is:

(a) Potassium pentacyanonitrosylferrate (II)
(b) Potassium pentacyanonitroferrate (II)
(c) Potassium nitritopentacyanoferrate (IV)
(d) Potassium nitritepentacynanoiron (II)

146. The melting point of copper is higher than that of zinc because:

(a) copper has a bcc structure
(b) the atomic volume of copper is higher
(c) the electrons of copper are involved in metallic bonding
(d) the s as well as d electrons of copper are involved in metallic bonding

147. Zr and Hf have almost equal atomic and ionic radii because of:

(a) diagonal relationship
(b) lanthanoid contraction
(c) actinoid contraction
(d) belonging to the same group

148. Which of the following classes of engineering ceramics generally includes lubricant materials?

(a) Metalloids
(b) Intermetallics
(c) Sulphides
(d) Carbides

149. In the test for nitrogen, the sodium fusion extract is acidified with which of the following?

(a) Dilute sulphuric acid
(b) Dilute hydrochloric acid
(c) Concentrated hydrochloric acid
(d) Concentrated sulphuric acid

150. Which one of these is not true for benzene?

(a) There are three carbon-carbon single bonds and three carbon-carbon double bonds
(b) Heat of hydrogenation of benzene is less than the theoretical value
(c) It forms only one type of mono substituted product
(d) The bond angle between carbon-carbon bonds is 120°

151. The coal tar fraction which contains phenol is:

(a) Heavy Oil
(b) Light Oil
(c) Middle Oil
(d) Green Oil

152. If there is no rotation of plane polarized light by a compound in a specific solvent, thought to be chiral,it may mean that:

(a) The compound may be a racemic mixture
(b) The compound is certainly a chiral
(c) The compound is certainly meso
(d) There is no compound in the solvent

153. Which element is estimated by the Carius method?

(a) Carbon
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Halogen
(d) Nitrogen

154. Criteria for purity of organic solid is:

(a) boiling point
(b) melting point
(c) specific gravity
(d) none of these

155. The product of hydrolysis of ozonide of 1-butene are:

(a) ethanol only
(b) ethanal and methanal
(c) propanal and methanal
(d) methanal only

156. Heating rubber with sulphur is known as:

(a) galvanisation
(b) bessemerisation
(c) vulcanisation
(d) sulphonation

157. Why are alkyl halides considered to be very reactive compounds towards nucleophiles?

(a) they have an electrophilic carbon & a bad leaving group
(b) they have a nucleophilic carbon & a good leaving group
(c) they have an electrophilic carbon
(d) they have an electrophilic carbon & a good leaving group

158. In primary alkyl halides, carbon attached to the halogen atom is further attached to how many carbon atoms?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

159. Arenes are:

(a) volatile
(b) Water soluble
(c) Non-carcinogenic
(d) Mostly gasses

160. The main source of the arenes are:

(a) Petroleum
(b) Biogas and petroleum
(c) Petroleum and coal tar
(d) Natural gas

161. A protein having both structural and enzymatic traits is:

(a) Collagen
(b) Trypsin
(c) Myosin
(d) Actin

162. NADP contains vitamin:

(a) B1
(b) B2
(c) B3
(d) B12

163. How many aldehydic groups does the compound phthaldehyde have?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

164. Drugs that bind to receptor site and inhibit its natural function are called:

(a) antagonists
(b) agonists
(c) enzymes
(d) molecular targets

165. The drug Tagamet is:

(a) analgesics
(b) antidepressant
(c) anaesthetic
(d) antacid

166. Domestic waste mostly constitutes:

(a) Non-biodegradable pollution
(b) Biodegradable pollution
(c) Effluents
(d) Air pollution

167. Which among the following is formed when an alcohol is dehydrated?

(a) alkane
(b) alkyne
(c) alkene
(d) aldehyde

168. Which of the following statements is not true about ethers?

(a) Lower ethers also act as anaesthetics
(b) Simple ethers (such as diethyl ether) are tasteless
(c) The lower ethers are highly volatile and flammable
(d) Ethers are not organic solvents

169. Mass of an atom is equal to which of the following?

(a) Only protons
(b) Only neutrons
(c) Neutrons and protons
(d) Protons and electrons

170. In a reversible chemical reaction at equilibrium, if the concentration of any one of the reactants isdoubled, then the equilibrium constant will:

(a) Also be Doubled
(b) Be Halved
(c) Remain the Same
(d) Become One-Fourth

171. A solution of HCl is diluted so that its pH changes by 0.3. How does concentration of H+ ion change?

(a) 0.5 times of initial value
(b) 0.3 times of initial value
(c) 10–3 times increases
(d) None of these

172. The oxidation state of Cr in [Cr(CO)₆] is:

(a) 0
(b) 2
(c) 2
(d) 6

173. What can you say about particle motion in gases?

(a) only vibratory
(b) very slow
(c) both vibratory and irregular
(d) too Rapid and random

174. The enthalpy of vaporization of benzene is +35.3 kJ/mol at its boiling point of 80°C. The entropy change in the transition of vapour to liquid at its boiling point is (in J mol^-1 K^-1):

(a) -100
(b) +100
(c) +342
(d) -342

175. For a reaction nx – y → z the rate of reaction becomes twenty seven times when the concentration of X is increased three times. What is the order of the reaction?

(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 0

176. The molar conductivity is maximum for the solution of concentration:

(a) 0.004 M
(b) 0.002 M
(c) 0.005 M
(d) 0.001 M

177. Alkali halids do not show Frenkel defect because:

(a) cations and anions have almost equal size
(b) there is a large difference in size of cations and anions
(c) cations and anions have low coordination number
(d) anions cannot be accommodated in voids

178. In addition to non-volatile potassium iodide in water at 298K it is noticed that vapor pressure reducesfrom 23.8 mm Hg to 2.0 cm Hg. What is the mole fraction of solute in the solution?

(a) 0.916
(b) 0.160
(c) 0.084
(d) 0.092

179. When a non-volatile solute is added to a solvent what is the difference in vapor pressure expressed asa fraction of original vapor pressure equal to:

(a) Mole fraction of solute in vapor phase
(b) Mole fraction of solvent in vapor phase
(c) Mole fraction of solute in liquid phase
(d) Mole fraction of solvent in liquid phase

180. The oxide of nitrogen which acts as a catalyst in lead chamber process is:

(a) NO
(b) NO₂
(c) N₂O₄
(d) H₂O₅

181. Among the following the electron deficient compound is:

(a) BCl₃
(b) CCl₄
(c) PCl₅
(d) BeCl₂

182. Which of the following is a linear molecule?

(a) ClO₂
(b) CO₂
(c) NO₂
(d) SO₂

183. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) The formation of ionic compounds depends upon the ease of formation of the positive and negative ions from the respective neutral atoms
(b) Formation of ionic compounds depends upon arrangement of the positive and negative ions in the solid
(c) Formation of positive ion involves addition of electron(s) while that of negative ion involves removal of electron(s)
(d) None of these

184. Which one of the following elements is found in a free state in nature?

(a) Sodium
(b) Iron
(c) Zinc
(d) Gold

185. Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?

(a) F₂
(b) Cl₂
(c) l₂
(d) Br₂

186. Both elements of 1st period contain valence electrons in:

(a) M shell
(b) N shell
(c) K shell
(d) S shell

187. In the periodic table, helium is placed at:

(a) top left corner
(b) bottom right corner
(c) bottom left corner
(d) top right corner

188. Which on water decolourises H₂O₂?

(a) O₃
(b) Acidic KMnO₄ solution
(c) Black Suspension of Lead Sulphide(PbS)
(d) None of these

189. The hydration energy of Mg²⁺ is larger than that of:

(a) Al³⁺
(b) Na⁺
(c) Be²⁺
(d) Mg³⁺

190. Correct formula of tetraaminechloronitroplatinum(IV) sulphate can be written as:

(a) [Pt(NH₃)₄(ONO)Cl]SO₄
(b) [Pt(NH₃)₄Cl₂NO₂]₂
(c) [Pt(NH₃)₄(NO₂)Cl]SO₄
(d) [PtCl(ONO)NH₃(SO₄)]

191. What happens when potassium iodide reacts with the acidic solution of potassium dichromate?

(a) It liberates iodine
(b) Potassium sulphate is formed
(c) Chromium sulphate is formed
(d) All the above products are formed

192. The number of moles of KMnO₄ that are needed to react completely with one mole of ferrous oxalate inacidic solution is:

(a) 3/5
(b) 2/5
(c) 4/5
(d) 1

193. Which of the following is not a property of fiberglass?

(a) Nonflammable
(b) Reinforcement for plastics
(c) Thermal insulation
(d) Organic

194. What is the color of the precipitate obtained in the test for sulphur?

(a) White
(b) Black
(c) Violent
(d) Blue

195. The catalyst used in Friedel-Crafts reaction is:

(a) Aluminium Chloride
(b) Anhydrous Aluminium Chloride
(c) Ferric Chloride
(d) Copper

196. Alkyl halides react with dialkyl copper reagents to give:

(a) Alkanes
(b) Alkenes
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Carbon

197. Inductive effect involves:

(a) displacement of σ electrons
(b) delocalization of π electrons
(c) delocalization of σ-electrons
(d) displacement of π-electrons

198. A crystalline solid possesses one of the following properties:

(a) Irregularity
(b) Non- symmetric
(c) Perfect geometric pattern
(d) non- stability

199. General formula of Alkene is:

(a) C_nH_2n
(b) C_nH_2n+2
(c) C_nH_2n-2
(d) none of these

200. α-Hydroxypropanoic acid can be preapred from ethanal by following the steps given in the sequence:

(a) Treat with HCN followed by acidic hydrolysis
(b) Treat with NaHSO₃ followed by reaction with Na₂CO₃
(c) Treat with H₂SO₄ followed by hydrolysis
(d) Treat with K₂Cr₂O₇ in presence of sulphuric acid

201. Dacron is an example of:

(a) polyamides
(b) polypropylenes
(c) polyacrylonitrile
(d) polyesters

202. Which of the following is not the method of preparation of alkyl halide?

(a) Darzen’s method
(b) Halogenation of alkene
(c) Addition of HX on alkenes
(d) Hydration of alkene

203. Which of the following reactants gives the best method of preparation of alkyl halides when reacting withalcohol?

(a) Zn/HCl
(b) PCl₅
(c) SOCl₂/ Pyridine
(d) PCl₃

204. Which among these is the simplest example for polycyclic arenes?

(a) Benzacephenanthrylene
(b) Naphthalene
(c) Pyrene
(d) Dibenz-anthracene

205. Which of the following is not a polysaccharide?

(a) Lactose
(b) Starch
(c) Glycogen
(d) Dextrin

206. Insulin is made up of _______ and _______.

(a) glucose and fructose
(b) glucose and fructose
(c) fructose and mannose
(d) mannose and glucose

207. With reference to enzymes, which one of the following statements is true?

(a) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
(b) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
(c) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
(d) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme – Apoenzyme

208. The compound 3-Phenylprop-2-enal is also known as _________.

(a) Crotonaldehyde
(b) Cinnamaldehyde
(c) Salicylaldehyde
(d) Vanillin

209. Narcotic analgesic is:

(a) aspirin
(b) paracetamol
(c) codeine
(d) cimetidine

210. Which of the following cationic detergent?

(a) Sodium lauryl sulphate
(b) Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide
(c) Sodium dodecyl benzene sulphonate
(d) Glyceryl oleate

211. What is the indicator of pollution in water?

(a) Amount of oxygen
(b) Amount of hydrogen
(c) Amount of BOD
(d) Amount of nitrogen

212. A fat on hydrolysis would yield:

(a) Glycerol and soap
(b) Ethanol and soap
(c) Ethanol and glycerol
(d) Only soap

213. An organic compound A reacts with sodium metal and forms B. On heating with conc. H2SO4, A gives diethyl ether. What are A and B?

(a) C4H9OH and C4H9ONa
(b) CH3OH and CH3ONa

214. Atomic number of an atom will be:

(a) Number of electrons
(b) Number of protons
(c) Number of electrons and protons
(d) Number of protons and neutrons

215. When a neutral atom undergoes oxidation, the atom’s oxidation state:

(a) Decreases as it gains electrons
(b) Decreases as it loses electrons
(c) Increases as it gains electrons
(d) Increases as it loses electrons

216. The pH of 0.1M CH3COOH is 2.873. What is pH of 0.1M NH4OH?
K_a (CH₃COOH) = 1.8 x 10^–5 and K_b (NH₄OH) = 1.8 x 10^–5

(a) 11.127
(b) 2.873
(c) 7
(d) 9.53

217. Which of the following processes does not involve oxidation of iron?

(a) Formation of Fe(CO)₅ from Fe
(b) Liberation of H₂ from steam by iron at high temperature
(c) Rusting of iron sheets
(d) Decolourisation of blue CuSO₄ solution by iron

218. Which statement is correct?

a) The value of Avogadro’s number is 6.022×10²² atoms
b) One molecule of any substance contains Avogadro’s number of particles
c) One mole is the amount of a substance that contains as many particles as there are atoms in exactly 12 g of the carbon atom
d) 1 u is not equal to Ma/NA

219. The entropy change involved in the isothermal reversible expansion of 2 moles of an ideal gas from avolume of 10 dm3 to a volume of 100 dm3 at 27°C is:

(a) 42.3 J mol–1 K^–1
(b) 38.3 J mol–1 K^–1
(c) 35.8 J mol–1 K^–1
(d) 32.3 J mol–1 K^–1

220. The rate constant of a reaction depends upon:

(a) temperature of the reaction
(b) extent of the reaction
(c) initial concentration of the reactants
(d) the time of completion of reaction

221. Units of the properties measured are given below. Which of the properties has not been matched correctly?

(a) Molar conductance = Sm² mol^–1
(b) Cell constant = m^–1
(c) Specific conductance of = S m²
(d) Equivalent conductance = S m² (g eq)^–1

222. The coordination number of Y will be in the XY types of crystal:

(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 12
(d) 4

223. When 2.0 grams of copper (II) nitrate is added to 1000 ml of pure water, by how much is the vapor pressure of water decreased, given that at 20°C the vapor pressure of pure water is 17.535 mm Hg?

(a) 3.1 x 10^–4
(b) 0.303
(c) 0.0333
(d) 0.0033

224. Two components A and B have their pure vapor pressures in the ratio 1 ∶ 4 and respective mole fractionsin solution in ratio 1 ∶ 2. What is the mole fraction of component B in the vapor phase?

(a) 0.8889
(b) 0.1250
(c) 0.8000
(d) 0.2000

225. The activity of an enzyme becomes ineffective:

(a) at low temperature
(b) at atmospheric pressure
(c) at high temperature
(d) in aqueous medium

226. Which among the following chemical bonds were described by Kossel and Lewis?
(a) Metallic bond
(b) Polar covalent bond
(c) Coordinate bond
(d) Ionic and Covalent bond

227. Which among the following is not a property of Ionic bond?
(a) Losing of electrons
(b) Gain of electrons
(c) Sharing of electrons
(d) Transfer of electrons

228. Which among the following formation is not an example of Covalent bond?
(a) LiF
(b) NH3
(c) CF4
(d) HF

229. The number of P-O-P bonds in cyclic metaphosphoric acid is:
(a) 2
(b) 0
(c) 3
(d) 4

230. Which of the following oxides is hydride of nitrous acid?
(a) N2O3
(b) NO2
(c) NO
(d) N2O4

231. In the modern periodic table, the period indicates the value of:
(a) Atomic Number
(b) Atomic Mass
(c) Principal Quantum Number
(d) Azimuthal Quantum Number

232. In the long form of the periodic table, the valence shell electronic configuration of 5s²5p⁴ corresponds to the element present in:
(a) Group 16 and period 6
(b) Group 17 and period 6
(c) Group 16 and period 5
(d) Group 17 and period 5

233. Water shows anomalous behavior between:
(a) 0 to 4°C
(b) 0 to 5°C
(c) 0 to -4°C
(d) 4 to 0°C

234. Carnallite is the mineral of:
(a) Na
(b) Ca
(c) Mg
(d) None of the Above

235. Which of the following is the coordination entity in K2[Zn(OH)4]?
(a) K+
(b) Zn2+
(c) OH–
(d) [Zn(OH)4]2-

236. The central atom/ion of a coordination complex is also referred to as ________.
(a) Lewis acid
(b) Lewis base
(c) Bronsted-Lowry acid
(d) Bronsted-Lowry base

237. Identify the Lewis acid in K3[Al(C2O4)3].
(a) K+
(b) Al
(c) Al3+
(d) [Al(C2O4)3]3-

238. The number of unpaired electrons in gaseous species of Mn3+, Cl3+ and V3+ respectively are and the most stable species is:
(a) 4, 3 and 2; V3+
(b) 3, 3 and 2; Cr3+
(c) 4, 3 and 2; Cr3+
(d) 3, 3 and 3; Mn3+

239. Colour of transition metal ions are due to absorption of some wavelength. This results in:
(a) d-s transition
(b) s-s transition
(c) s-t transition
(d) d-d transition

240. Which of the following is not a property of fiberglass?
(a) Nonflammable
(b) Reinforcement for plastics
(c) Thermal insulation
(d) Organic

241. What is the color of the precipitate obtained in the test for sulphur?
(a) White
(b) Black
(c) Violent
(d) Blue

242. The coal tar fraction which contains phenol is:
(a) Heavy Oil
(b) Light Oil
(c) Middle Oil
(d) Green Oil

243. Which one of these is not true for benzene?
(a) There are three carbon-carbon single bonds and three carbon-carbon double bonds.
(b) Heat of hydrogenation of benzene is less than the theoretical value
(c) It forms only one type of mono substituted product
(d) The bond angle between carbon-carbon bonds is 120 degree

244. Which one of the following conformations of cyclohexane is chiral?
(a) Twist boat
(b) Rigid
(c) Chair
(d) None of these

245. If 0.228 g of silver salt of dibasic acid gave a residue of 0.162 g of silver on ignition then molecular weight of the acid is:
(a) 70
(b) 80
(c) 90
(d) 100

246. Number of π bonds in ethyne is:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

247. Aldehydes other than formaldehyde react with Grignard’s reagent to give addition products which on hydrolysis give:
(a) tertiary alcohols
(b) secondary alcohols
(c) primary alcohols
(d) carboxylic acids

248. Terylene is a condensation polymer of ethylene glycol and ______.
(a) benzoic acid
(b) phthalic acid
(c) dimethyl terephthalate
(d) salicylic acid

249. Why are alkyl halides considered to be very reactive compounds towards nucleophile?
(a) they have an electrophilic carbon & a bad leaving group
(b) they have a nucleophilic carbon & a good leaving group
(c) they have an electrophilic carbon
(d) they have an electrophilic carbon & a good leaving group

250. Formation of complex substances from simpler compounds is called as _______.
(a) Anabolic pathway
(b) Catabolic pathway
(c) Degradation pathway
(d) Metabolic pathway

251. Those metabolites that are formed during growth phase as a result of energy metabolism are called as________.
(a) Primary metabolites
(b) Secondary metabolites
(c) Tertiary metabolites
(d) Quaternary metabolites

252. Identify the correct IUPAC name of CH3-CH=CH-CHO.
(a) But-2-enal
(b) 2-Butenal
(c) Buten-2-al
(d) Butenal

253. Which one of the following does not contain the -COOH group?
(a) Picric acid
(b) Aspirin
(c) Benzoic acid
(d) Ethanoic acid

254. Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as:
(a) antiseptic
(b) antipyretic
(c) antibiotic
(d) analgesics

255. Which among the following correctly defines Diastereomer?
(a) These have same magnitude but different signs of optical rotation
(b) Non-superimposable object mirror relationship
(c) These differ in all physical properties
(d) Separation is very difficult

256. Identify the chiral molecule among the following:
(a) Isopropyl alcohol
(b) 2-pentanol
(c) 1-bromo 3-butene
(d) Isobutyl alcohol

257. What would be the atomic number of that element having a full K and L shell ?
(a) 20
(b) 14
(c) 10
(d) 16

258. When equal volumes of 0.1 M NaOH and 0.01 M HCl are mixed, the hydroxide ion concentration is_____.
(a) 7.0
(b) 1.04
(c) 12.65
(d) 2.0

259. The pH of 0.1M CH3COOH is 2.873. What is pH of 0.1M NH4OH?
Ka(CH3COOH) = 1.8 ´ 10–5 andKb(NH4OH) = 1.8 ´ 10–5
(a) 11.127
(b) 2.873
(c) 7
(d) 9.53

260. A solution of HCl is diluted so that its pH changes by 0.3. How does concentration of H+ ion change?
(a) 0.5 times of initial value
(b) 0.3 times of initial value
(c) 10–3 times increases
(d) None of these

261. How many millilitres of 0.5 M H2SO4 are needed to dissolve 0.5 g of copper(II)carbonate?
(a) 6.01
(b) 4.5
(c) 8.1
(d) 11.1

262. One mole of sucrose contains how many grams of sucrose?
(a) 342g
(b) 343g
(c) 341g
(d) 340g

263. 1 mole of ammonia is 17 g. Then what is the mass of 0.3 moles of ammonia?
(a) 21g
(b) 2.1g
(c) 17g
(d) 1g

264. In a system where ∆E = -51.0 kJ, a piston expands against a pext of 1.2 atm giving a change in volume of32.0 L. What was the change in heat of this system?
(a) -36 kJ
(b) -13 kJ
(c) -47 kJ
(d) 24 kJ

265. For the reaction A + H2O → products, find the rate of the reaction when [A] = 0.75 M, k= 0.02.
(a) 0.077 s-1
(b) 0.085 s-1
(c) 0.015 s-1
(d) 0.026 s-1

266. Which of the following is used as an electrolyte in an H2-O2 fuel cell?
(a) KOH
(b) NH4OH
(c) Fe(OH)2
(d) Cu(OH)2

267. Which of the following can be used as fuel in a fuel cell?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Argon
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Helium

268. Alkali halides do not show Frenkel defect because:
(a) cations and anions have almost equal size
(b) there is a large difference in size of cations and anions
(c) cations and anions have low coordination number
(d) anions cannot be accommodated in voids

269. When a non-volatile solute is added to a solvent what is the difference in vapor pressure expressed as a fraction of original vapor pressure equal to?
(a) Mole fraction of solute in vapor phase
(b) Mole fraction of solvent in vapor phase
(c) Mole fraction of solute in liquid phase
(d) Mole fraction of solvent in liquid phase

270. Which of the following types of metals make the most efficient catalyst?
(a) Alkali metals
(b) Transition metals
(c) Inner transition metals
(d) Alkaline earth metals

271. If a bond is made up of a large number of organic compounds, then the bond is termed as?
(a) Ionic bond
(b) Metallic bond
(c) Covalent bond
(d) Dipolar bond

272. Which among the following is not an example of hydrogen bond?
(a) H2O
(b) Liquid HCl
(c) NH3
(d) CHCl3

273. Atoms undergo bonding in order to _______.
(a) Attain stability
(b) Lose stability
(c) Move freely
(d) Increase energy

274. Which oxide of nitrogen is obtained on heating ammonium nitrate at 250°C?
(a) Nitric oxide
(b) Nitrous oxide
(c) Nitrogen dioxide
(d) Dinitrogen tetraoxide

275. Atomicity of phosphorus is _____.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

276. Arrange S, O and Se in ascending order of electron affinity.
(a) Se < S < O
(b) Se < O < S
(c) S < O < Se
(d) S < Se < O

277. In the modern periodic table , the period indicates the value of:
(a) Atomic Number
(b) Atomic Mass
(c) Principal Quantum Number
(d) Azimuthal Quantum Number

278. Which of the following statements regarding hydrogen peroxide is/ are incorrect?
(a) As aerating agent in production of sponge rubber
(b) As an antichlor
(c) For restoring white colour of blackened lead painting
(d) All of the above

279. The wire of flash bulb is made up of:
(a) Mg
(b) Ag
(c) Cu
(d) Ba

280. Which of the following is the central atom/ion in [CoCl(NH3)5]2+?
(a) Co
(b) Co2+
(c) Co3+
(d) Cl–

281. Which of the following cannot be a ligand?
(a) Ni2+
(b) Cl–
(c) H2O
(d) NH3

282. How many donor atoms can EDTA4- ligand bind through?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8

283. In which of the following pairs of ions, the lower oxidation state in aqueous solution is more stable than the other?
(a) Ti+, Ti3+
(b)Cu+, Cu3+
(c) Cr2+, Cr3+
(d) V2+, VO2+

284. The melting point of copper is higher than that of zinc because:
(a) copper has a bcc structure
(b) the atomic volume of copper is higher
(c) the electrons of copper are involved in metallic bonding
(d) the s as well as d electrons of copper are involved in metallic bonding

285. On average, what is the maximum use temperature of engineering ceramics?
(a) 2860°C
(b) 6815°C
(c) 3400°C
(d) 2760°C

286. A X color precipitate, which is Y in ammonium hydroxide indicates presence of chlorine. Identify X andY.
(a) X = yellowish, Y = soluble
(b) X = yellow, Y = insoluble
(c) X = white, Y = insoluble
(d) X = white, Y = soluble

287. The catalyst used in Friedel – Crafts reaction is ______.
(a) Aluminium Chloride
(b) Anhydrous Aluminium Chloride
(c) Ferric Chloride
(d) Copper

288. Alkyl halides react with dialkyl copper reagents to give:
(a) Alkanes
(b) Alkenes
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Carbon

289. In the Dumas method, the nitrogen present in organic compound gets converted to:
(a) Sodium Cyanide
(b) Gaseous Ammonia
(c) Dinitrogen Gas
(d) Ammonium Sulphate

290. 0.0833mol of carbohydrate of empirical formula CH2O contains 1 g of hydrogen. The molecular formula of the carbohydrate is:
(a) C5H10O5
(b) C3H4O3
(c) C12H22O11
(d) C6H12O6

291. The compound having general formula CnH2n+2 is:
(a) Alkene
(b) Alkyne
(c) Alkane
(d) None of these

292. Which of the following will not give aldol condensation?
(a) Phenyl acetaldehyde
(b) 2-Methylpentanal
(c) Benzaldehyde
(d) 1-Phenylpropanone

293. Heating rubber with sulphur is known as:
(a) galvanisation
(b) bessemerisation
(c) vulcanisation
(d) sulphonation

294. In primary alkyl halides, carbon attached to the halogen atom is further attached to how many carbon atoms?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

295. Which among the following is incorrect about carbohydrates?
(a) Carbohydrates derive its name from the hydrates of carbon
(b) The general formula of all carbohydrates is Cx(H2O)y
(c) Carbohydrates are defined as optically active polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones or the compounds that produce such units on hydrolysis
(d) Glyceraldehyde is the smallest carbohydrate

296. Which among the following is incorrect about different saccharides?
(a) Polysaccharides are used to store food whereas most of the monosaccharides are used for instantaneous energy
(b) Most of the polysaccharides are sweet in taste and therefore are also called sugars
(c) Starch can be digested whereas cellulose can’t be digested
(d) Saccharides are also classified as ketose and aldose

297. The compound 3-Phenylprop-2-enal is also known as _________.
(a) Crotonaldehyde
(b) Cinnamaldehyde
(c) Salicylaldehyde
(d) Vanillin

298. C3H9N can have how many structural isomers?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

299. Which of the following is used as antacid?
(a) Iproniazid
(b) Salvarsan
(c) Zantac
(d) Chloramphenicol

300. The molecular formula C5H12 contains how many isomeric alkanes?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

301. A fat on hydrolysis would yield:
(a) Glycerol and soap
(b) Ethanol and soap
(c) Ethanol and glycerol
(d) Only soap

302. The chemical properties of an atom related to:
(a) Number of protons
(b) Number of electrons
(c) Number of neutrons
(d) None of these

303. Concentration of the Ag+ ions in a saturated solution of Ag2C2O4 is 2.2 x 10-4 mol L-1. Solubility product of Ag2C2O42 is:
(a) 2.66 × 10-12
(b) 4.5 × 10-11
(c) 5.3 × 10-12
(d) 2.42 × 10-8

304. The pH at which Mg(OH)2 begins to precipitate from a solution containing 0.10M Mg2+ ions [Kp ofMg(OH)2 = 1 × 10–11] is:
(a) 5
(b) 9
(c) 4
(d) 10

305. The concentration of hydroxyl ion in solution left after mixing 100 mL of 0.1 M MgCl2 and 100 mL of 0.2M NaOH (Ksp of Mg(OH)2 = 1.2 × 10–11] is:
(a) 2.8 × 10-3
(b) 2.8 × 10-2
(c) 2.8 × 10-4
(d) 2.8 × 10-5

306. The oxidation state of Cr in Cr (CO)6 is:
(a) 0
(b) 2
(c) 2
(d) 6

307. What’s the number of particles in 10 moles of hydrochloric acid?
(a) 6.022 x 1022 particles
(b) 6.022 x 1023 particles
(c) 6.22 x 1023 particles
(d) 3.22 x 1022 particles

308. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The value of Avogadro’s number is 6.022×1022 atoms
(b) One molecule of any substance contains Avogadro’s number of particles
(c) One mole is the amount of a substance that contains as many particles as there are atoms in exactly 12 g of the carbon atom
(d) 1 u is not equal to Ma/NA

309. A system absorbs 10 kJ of heat at constant volume and its temperature rises from 27°C to 37°C. The value of ∆ U is:
(a) 100 kJ
(b) 10 kJ
(c) 0 kJ
(d) 1 kJ

310. What is the concentration of the reactant in a first order reaction when the rate of the reaction is 0.6 s-1and the rate constant is 0.035?
(a) 26.667 M
(b) 17.143 M
(c) 26.183 M
(d) 17.667 M

311. Which of the following is not a fuel cell?
(a) PEM cell
(b) Direct methanol cell
(c) Solid oxide cell
(d) Daniell cell

312. Which of the following is not produced in an H2-O2 fuel cell?
(a) Electricity
(b) Pollutants
(c) Heat
(d) Water

313. The coordination number of Y will be in the XY types of crystal:
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 12
(d) 4

314. When 2.0 grams of copper (II) nitrate is added to 1000 ml of pure water, by how much is the vaporpressure of water decreased, given that at 20°C the vapor pressure of pure water is 17.535 mm Hg?
(a) 3.1 x 10-4
(b) 0.303
(c) 0.0333
(d) 0.0033

315. The oxide of nitrogen which acts as a catalyst in lead chamber process is:
(a) NO
(b) NO2
(c) N2O4
(d) H2O5

316. Atoms undergo bonding in order to ________.
(a) Attain stability
(b) Lose stability
(c) Move freely
(d) Increase energy

317. An atom differs from its ion in which among the following?
(a) Mass number
(b) Atomic number
(c) Neutrons
(d) Number of protons

318. Which among the following is not both a molecule and a compound?
(a) C6 H12 O6
(b) H2O
(c) CO2
(d) NaCl

319. Consider the following statement about Ozone. O3 is formed by the interaction of fluorine. II. It turns tetra methyl base paper as violet. III. It turns benzidine paper brown. The correct set of true statement is:
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and III
(c) I and III
(d) II and III

320. In the compound of type ECl3, where E = B, P, As, or Bi, the angle Cl – E – Cl for different E are ion the order:
(a) B = P = As = Bi
(b) B > P > As > Bi
(c) B < P = As = Bi
(d) B < P < As < Bi

321. The element with atomic number 35 belongs to:
(a) d – Block
(b) f – Block
(c) p – Block
(d) s – Block

322. The correct order of first ionization potential among following elements, Be, B, C, N and O is:
(a) B < Be < C < O < N
(b) B < Be < C < N < O
(c) Be < B < C < N < O
(d) Be < B < C < O < N

323. Water gas is mixture of hydrogen H2 and:
(a) CO
(b) CO2
(c) Cl2
(d) SO2

324. The basic strength of which hydroxide is maximum:
(a) LiOH
(b) NaOH
(c) Ca(OH)2
(d) KOH

325. Trunbull’s blue is:
(a) Ferricyanide
(b) Ferrous ferricyanide
(c) Ferrous cyanide
(d) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]4

326. Primary and secondary valency of Pt in [Pt(en)2Cl2] are:
(a) 4, 4
(b) 4, 6
(c) 6, 4
(d) 2, 6

327. The complex ions [Co(NH3)5(NO2)]2+ and [Co(NH3)5 (ONO)]2+ are called:
(a) Ionization isomers
(b) Linkage isomers
(c) Co-ordination isomers
(d) Geometrical isomers

328. Which metal is used in an aircraft turbine engine?
(a) Iron
(b) Thorium
(c) Titanium
(d) Neodymium

329. Which metal is used as an electroplated protective coating?
(a) Plutonium
(b) Chromium
(c) Nickel
(d) Iron

330. On which of the following materials the compressive test is done?
(a) Aluminum
(b) Thermocole
(c) Cast iron
(d) Gold

331. An aqueous solution FeSO4.Al2(SO4)3 and chrome alum is heated with excess Na2O2 and filtered. The materials obtained by:
(a) A colourless filtrated and a green residue
(b) A yellow filtrate and a green residue
(c) A yellow filtrated and brown residue
(d) A green filtrate and brown residue

332. Hydrocarbons are organic compounds with element __________.
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Carbon
(d) Both hydrogen and carbon

333. Find the odd one out.
(a) Aromatic
(b) Alkanes
(c) Alkynes
(d) Alkenes

334. Which of the following compounds is used to depress the Central nervous system?
(a) Iodoform
(b) DDT
(c) Freon
(d) Chloroform

335. In which of the following reactions lead tetraacetate is used to cleave a carbon-carbon bond in a glycol?
(a) Swern oxidation
(b) Criegee oxidation
(c) Jones oxidation
(d) Baeyer-Villiger Oxidation

336. What is the common name of 3-Bromopropene?
(a) Tert-Butyl bromide
(b) Vinyl bromide
(c) Allyl bromide
(d) Propylidene bromide

337. Which of the following methods cannot produce aldehydes?
(a) Oxidation of primary alcohols
(b) Dehydrogenation of secondary alcohols
(c) Ozonolysis of alkenes
(d) Hydration of ethyne with acid

338. Which of the following reactions can produce ketones?
(a) Oxidation of primary alcohols
(b) Dehydrogenation of primary alcohols
(c) Dehydrogenation of tertiary alcohols
(d) Oxidation of secondary alcohols

339. Which of the following polymer types is not classified on the basis of its application and properties?
(a) rubbers
(b) plastics
(c) fibres
(d) synthetic

340. Enzymes vitamins and hormones are common in:
(a) Enhancing oxidative metabolism
(b) Being synthesized in the body of organisms
(c) Being proteinaceous
(d) Regulating metabolism

341. Which of the following compounds will undergo self aldol condensation in the presence of cold dilute alkali?
(a) CH ≡ C-CHO
(b) CH2 = CHCHO
(c) C6H5CHO
(d) CH3CH2CHO

342. Which compound is obtained when acetaldehydes are treated with dilute solution of caustic soda?
(a) Sodium acetate
(b) Resinous mass
(c) Aldol
(d) Ethyl acetate

343. Nitrogen atom of the amino group is ________ hybridized.
(a) sp
(b) sp2
(c) sp3
(d) sp3d

344. C3H8N cannot represent:
(a) 1° ammine
(b) 2° ammine
(c) 3° ammine
(d) quartemary ammonium salt

345. Which of the following compounds is used to depress the Central nervous system?
(a) Iodoform
(b) DDT
(c) Freon
(d) Chloroform

346. In which of the following reactions lead tetraacetate is used to cleave a carbon-carbon bond in a glycol?
(a) Swern oxidation
(b) Criegee oxidation
(c) Jones oxidation
(d) Baeyer-Villiger Oxidation

347. Sodium benzoate is used as:
(a) food preservative
(b) artificial sweetener
(c) antioxidant
(d) detergent

348. Which of the following is not an antacid?
(a) Phenelzine
(b) Ranitidine
(c) Al(OH)3
(d) Cimetidine

349. One of the following is the chief source of water and soil pollution.
(a) Agro industry
(b) Mining
(c) Thermal power stations
(d) All of these

350. A covalent bond is also called as _______.
(a) Atomic bond
(b) Metal bond
(c) Molecular bond
(d) Metal bond

351. In a reversible chemical reaction at equilibrium, if the concentration of any one of the reactants is doubled, then the equilibrium constant will:
(a) Also be Doubled
(b) Be Halved
(c) Remain the Same
(d) Become One-Fourth

352. The oxidation number of Mn is maximum in:
(a) MnO2
(b) K2MnO4
(c) Mn3O4
(d) KMnO4

353. The oxidation process involves:
(a) Increase in oxidation number
(b) Decrease in oxidation number
(c) No change in oxidation number
(d) None of the above

354. A gas deviates from ideal behavior at a high pressure because its molecules:
(a) Attract one another
(b) Show the Tyndall Effect
(c) Have kinetic energy
(d) Are bound by covalent bonds

355. In which of the following processes, a maximum increase in entropy is observed?
(a) Dissolution of Salt in Water
(b) Condensation of Water
(c) Sublimation of Naphthalene
(d) Melting of Ice

356. Unit of rate and rate constant are same in:
(a) zero order reaction
(b) first order reaction
(c) second order reaction
(d) third order reaction

357. How long would it take to deposit 50 g of Al from an electrolytic cell containing Al2O3 using a current of105 ampere?
(a) 1.54 h
(b) 1.42 h
(c) 1.32 h
(d) 2.15 h

358. The edge length of the free cell is 508 pm. If radius of cation is 110 pm, the radius of anion is:
(a) 110 pm
(b) 220 pm
(c) 285 pm
(d) 144 pm

359. The substances which behave as colloidal solutions at higher concentration are called:
(a) associated colloids
(b) multimolecular colloids
(c) macromolecular colloids
(d) protective colloids

360. Which of the following is not a method of removing impurities from a colloidal sol?
(a) Electrodialysis
(b) Ultrafiltration
(c) Ultra centrifugation
(d) Distillation

361. The electronic structure of the SO2 molecule is best represented as a resonance hybrid of ____ equivalent structures.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

362. Consider the bicarbonate ion (also called the hydrogen carbonate ion). After drawing the correct Lewisdot structure(s), you would see:
(a) two double bonds around the central carbon atom
(b) three single bonds around the central carbon atom
(c) four single bonds around the central carbon atom
(d) two equivalent resonance forms

363. Draw one of the resonance structures of SO3. The formal charge of S is:
(a) +2
(b) +1
(c) 0
(d) -1

364. All the elements of oxygen family are:
(a) Non metals
(b) Metalloids
(c) Radioactive
(d) Polymorphic

365. Which of the following will not produce hydrogen gas?
(a) Reaction between Fe and dil. HCl
(b) Reaction between Zn and NaOH
(c) Reaction between Zn and conc. H2SO4
(d) Electrolysis of NaCl in Nelsons cell

366. Representative elements are those which belong to:
(a) p and d – Block
(b) s and d – Block
(c) s and p – Block
(d) s and f – Block

367. Which of the following properties generally decreases along a period?
(a) Ionization Energy
(b) Metallic Character
(c) Electron Affinity
(d) Valency

368. Hydrogen has ____ isotopes.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

369. Milk of lime reacts with chlorine to form ________, a constituent of bleaching powder.
(a) Ca(OCI)2
(b) Ca(CIO2)2
(c) Ca(CIO3)2
(d) Ca(CIO4)2

370. Which of the following has magnesium?
(a) Chlorophyll
(b) Haemocyanin
(c) Carbonic anhydrate
(d) Vitamin B12

371. Mohr’s salt is _____.
(a) Fe2(SO4) 3 . (NH4)2SO4 . 6H2O
(b) FeSO4 . (NH4)2 . SO4 . 6H2O
(c) MgSO4 . 7H2O
(d) FeSO4 . 7H2O

372. Which of the following shall form an octahedral complex?
(a) d4 (low spin)
(b) d8 (high spin)
(c) d6 (low spin)
(d) All of these

373. Which metal is used in making electrical fibres?
(a) Actinium
(b) Nickel
(c) Thorium
(d) Tungsten

374. Which of the following metals does not form a coloured salt?
(a) Thorium
(b) Zinc
(c) Bronze
(d) Cobalt

375. Which of the following terms is used to define the temperature at which a substance changes its state from solid to liquid?(a) Melting point
(b) Freezing point
(c) Boiling point
(d) Condensation point

376. In nitroprusside ion the iron and NO exist as Fe (II) and NO+ rather than Fe (III) and NO. These forms can be differentiated by:
(a) Estimating the concentration of iron
(b) Measuring the concentration of CN
(c) Measuring the solid state magnetic moment
(d) Thermally decomposing the compound

377. The simplest member of organic compounds is _______.
(a) Methanol
(b) Methane
(c) Formaldehyde
(d) Formic acid

378. Ethane is obtained by electrolyzing _______.
(a) Potassium formate
(b) Potassium succinate
(c) Potassium acetate
(d) Potassium fumarate

379. Which of the following is neither an acid nor base?
(a) KCl
(b) CH3OH
(c) HCl
(d) CH3COOH

380. Which of the following organic compounds is formed when aniline reacts with acetaldehyde?
(a) Diazonium salt
(b) Immine
(c) Schiff’s base
(d) Carbylamine

381. In the common naming system, the prefix sym- is used for haloarenes with _____ halogen atoms.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

382. What is the catalyst used in the hydrogenation of acetyl chloride to produce ethanal?
(a) Pt over BaSO4
(b) Pt over CuSO4
(c) Pd over BaSO4
(d) Pd over CuSO4

383. Which of the following carbonyl compounds can be prepared from the Rosenmund reaction?
(a) Methanal
(b) Acetone
(c) Butanone
(d) Benzaldehyde

384. Which of the following is a thermosetting polymer?
(a) polystyrene
(b) polyolefins
(c) nylons
(d) phenolic resins

385. The minimum amount of energy required to initiate a chemical reaction is called ______.
(a) enzymatic energy
(b) activation energy
(c) substrate energy
(d) initiation energy

386. To differentiate between pentan-2-one and penta-3-one a test is carried out. Which of the following is the correct answer?
(a) Pentan-2-one will give silver mirror test
(b) Pentan-2-one will give iodoform test
(c) Pentan-3-one will give iodoform test
(d) None of these

387. Which of the following does not answer the iodoform test?
(a) n-Butyl alcohol
(b) sec-Butyl alcohol
(c) Acetophenone
(d) Acetaldehyde

388. The most convenient method to prepare primary amine containing one carbon atom less is:
(a) Gabriel phthalmidie synthesis
(b) Reductive amination of aldehydes
(c) Hofmann bromamide reaction
(d) Reduction of isonitriles

389. When excess of ethyl iodide is treated with ammonia, the product is ______.
(a) ethylamine
(b) diethylamine
(c) triethylamine
(d) tetrathylammonium iodide

390. Which of the following is neither an acid nor base?
(a) KCl
(b) CH₃OH
(c) HCl
(d) CH₃COOH

391. Which of the following organic compounds is formed when aniline reacts with acetaldehyde?
(a) Diazonium salt
(b) Immine
(c) Schiff’s base
(d) Carbylamine

392. Allergy is caused by the production of ______ in the body.
(a) Hormones
(b) Enzymes
(c) Vitamins
(d) Histamines

393. Which of the following can possibly be used as analgesic without causing addiction and modification?
(a) Morphine
(b) Diazepam
(c) N-acetyl1-para-aminophenol
(d) LSD

394. What is the indicator of pollution in water?
(a) Amount of oxygen
(b) Amount of hydrogen
(c) Amount of BOD
(d) Amount of nitrogen

395. Electrons that orbit the outermost shell of an atom are called:
(a) Valence electrons
(b) Electrons
(c) Electron Coefficients
(d) Neutrons

396. When a neutral atom undergoes oxidation, the atom’s oxidation state ______.
(a) Decreases as it gains electrons
(b) Decreases as it loses electrons
(c) Increases as it gains electrons
(d) Increases as it loses electrons

397. Metals generally react with dilute acids to produce hydrogen gas. Which one of the following metals does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid?
(a) Copper
(b) Magnesium
(c) Iron
(d) Silver

398. The oxidation number of Xe in Ba₂XeO₆ is ____.
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 10

399. The value of universal gas constant R depends on _______.
(a) Temperature of Gas
(b) Volume of Gas
(c) Number of Moles of Gas
(d) Units of Volume, Temperature and Pressure

400. The bond energy (in kcal mol^-1) of a C-C single bond is approximately _______.
(a) 1
(b) 10
(c) 83-85
(d) 1000

401. The number of molecules of the reactants taking part in a single step of the reaction is indicative of_______.
(a) order of a reaction
(b) molecuiarity of a reaction
(c) fast step of the mechanism of a reaction
(d) half-life of the reaction

402. The charge required for reducing 1 mole of MnO₄^– to Mn²⁺ is ______.
(a) 1.93 × 10^5 C
(b) 2.895 × 10^5 C
(c) 4.28 × 10^5 C
(d) 4.825 × 10^5 C

403. How many lithium atoms are present in a unit cell with edge length 3.5 Å and density 0.53 g cm^-3? (Atomic mass of Li = 6.94):
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 6

404. Movement of dispersion medium under the influence of electric fields is known as ______.
(a) electrodialysis
(b) electrophoresis
(c) electroosmosis
(d) cataphoresis

405. Why is alum added to water containing suspended impurities?
(a) To make a colloidal solution
(b) To coagulate the suspended impurities
(c) To remove impurities of calcium and magnesium
(d) To protect the colloidal solution from getting precipitated

406. The correct dot formulation for nitrogen trichloride has:
(a) 3 N-Cl bonds and 10 lone pairs of electrons
(b) 3 N=Cl bonds and 6 lone pairs of electrons
(c) 1 N-Cl bond, 2 N=Cl bonds and 7 lone pairs of electrons
(d) 2 N-Cl bonds, 1 N=Cl bond and 8 lone pairs of electrons

407. What is the total number of electrons in the correct Lewis dot formula of the sulfite ion?
(a) 8
(b) 24
(c) 26
(d) 30

408. In the Lewis structure for the OF₂ molecule, the number of lone pairs of electrons around the central oxygen atom is:
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3

409. Graphite is a soft solid lubricant extremely difficult to melt. The reason for this anomalous behaviour is that graphite:
(a) Has carbon atoms arranged in large plates of rings of strongly bound carbon atoms with weak interplate bonds
(b) Is a non – crystalline substance
(c) Is an allotropic form of carbon
(d) Has molecules of variable molecular masses like polymers

410. Borax is used as a cleansing agent because on dissolving in water, it gives _______.
(a) Alkaline solution
(b) Acidic solution
(c) Bleaching solution
(d) Amphoteric solution

411. On the Paulings electronegativity scale the element next to F is _______.
(a) N
(b) Cl
(c) O
(d) Ne

412. The group number, number of valence electrons, and valency of an element with the atomic number 15,respectively, are:
(a) 16, 5 and 2
(b) 15, 5 and 3
(c) 16, 6 and 3
(d) 15, 6 and 2

413. Pure H₂O₂ is:
(a) Semi – solid
(b) Liquid
(c) Solid
(d) Gas

414. What happens when Calcium carbonate is heated to 1200 K?
(a) Carbon Monoxide
(b) Calcium hydroxide
(c) Calcium Oxide
(d) Both (2) and (3) are correct

415. EDTA is used for the estimation of _______.
(a) Na⁺ and K⁺ ions
(b) Cl^– and Br^– ions
(c) Cu²⁺ and Cs⁺ ions
(d) Ca²⁺ and Mg²⁺ ions

416. The solution of the complex [Cu(NH₃)₄]SO₄ in water will _______.
(a) give the tests of Cu²⁺ ion
(b) give the tests of NH₃
(c) give the tests of SO₄^2- ions
(d) not give the tests of any of the above

417. IUPAC name of [Pt(NH₃)₃Br(NO₂)Cl]Cl is ________.
(a) Triamminechlorodibromideplatinum(IV) chloride
(b) Triamminechloridobromidonitrochlorideplatinum(IV)
(c) Triamminebromidochloridonitroplatinum(IV) chloride
(d) Triamminenitrochlorobromoplatinum(IV) chloride

418. Which of the following is used as a nuclear fuel?
(a) Cobalt
(b) Zinc
(c) Iron
(d) Uranium

419. Which of the following has the highest density?
(a) Os
(b) Zn
(c) Cr
(d) Cd

420. Which of the following materials are usually used for electrolysis?
(a) Silicon, antimony
(b) Silver, tin
(c) Zinc, cadmium
(d) Aluminum, nickel

421. Passing H₂S gas into a mixture of Mn²⁺, Ni²⁺, Cu²⁺ ions in acidified aqueous solution precipitates:
(a) CuS and HgS
(b) MnS and CuS
(c) MgS and NiS
(d) Nis and HgS

422. Calcium carbide reaction with water gives _______.
(a) Methane
(b) Ethane
(c) propane
(d) Acetylene

423. Name the process associated with acylation of benzene.
(a) Friedel craft reaction
(b) Wurtz reaction
(c) Wurtz fittig reaction
(d) Debey Huckel reaction

424. Which of the following compounds is yielded from the reduction of nitroalkanes?
(a) Amine
(b) Acid
(c) Diazo compounds
(d) Alcohol

425. Which of the following statements is not true about ethers?
(a) Lower ethers also act as anaesthetics
(b) Simple ethers (such as diethyl ether) are tasteless
(c) The lower ethers are highly volatile and flammable
(d) Ethers are not organic solvents

426. How many carbon atoms does Isobutyl chloride have in its parent carbon chain?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

427. Which of the following is required in Stephen’s reaction?
(a) LiCl
(b) NiCl₂
(c) SnCl₂
(d) TiCl₄

428. Which of the following compounds helps in reducing esters to aldehydes?
(a) BINAL-H
(b) DIBAL-H
(c) DIPT
(d) TBAF

429. Which of the following monomers are unsuitable for condensation polymerization?
(a) propanoic acid and ethanol
(b) butane-dioic acid and glycol
(c) diamines and dicarboxylic acids
(d) hydroxy acids

430. Lecithin is a _____.
(a) polysaccharide
(b) protein
(c) nucleic acid
(d) lipid

431. When propanal reacts with 2-methylpropanal in presence of NaOH, four different products are formed. Thereaction is known as _______.
(a) Aldol condensation
(b) Cross aldol condensation
(c) Cannizzaro reaction
(d) HVZ condensation

432. Which among the following is most reactive to give nucleophilic addition?
(a) FCH₂CHO
(b) ClCH₂CHO
(c) BrCH₂CHO
(d) ICH₂CHO

433. Amides may be converted into amines by a reaction named after _______.
(a) Hofmann Bromamide
(b) Claisen
(c) Perkin
(d) Kekule

434. Secondary amines can be prepared by ________.
(a) reduction of nitro compounds
(b) oxidation of N-substituted amides
(c) reduction of isonitriles
(d) reduction of nitriles

435. Which of the following compounds is yielded from the reduction of nitroalkanes?
(a) Amine
(b) Acid
(c) Diazo compounds
(d) Alcohol

436. Which of the following is true about transesterification?
(a) exchanging the organic alkyl group of alcohol with the organic group alkyl of an ester
(b) exchanging the organic alkyl group of an ester with the organic group alkyl of an ether
(c) exchanging the organic alkyl group of an ester with the organic group alkyl of an alcohol
(d) exchanging the organic alkyl group of an ester with the organic group alkyl of an alkane

437. Aspiring is an acetylation product of ______.
(a) p-Dihydroxybenzene
(b) o-Hydroxybenzoic acid
(c) o-Dihydroxy benzene
(d) m-Hydroxy benzoic acid

438. Drug which is used to reduce anxiety and bring calmness is known as _______.
(a) Tranquilizer
(b) Diuretic
(c) Analgesic
(d) Antacids

439. Which of the following acts as a sink for CO?
(a) Plants
(b) Haemoglobin
(c) Microorganisms present in the soil
(d) Oceans

440. What is the time during which one half of a number of radioactive species decays or one half of their activity ceases?
(a) Half Life
(b) Supercritical state
(c) Semi life
(d) Critical life

441. A certain buffer solution contains equal concentration of X^– and HX. The ka for HX is 10^-8. The pH of the buffer is:
(a) 3
(b) 8
(c) 11
(d) 14

442. The colourless solution of silver nitrate slowly turns blue on adding copper chips to it because of:
(a) Dissolution of Copper
(b) Oxidation of Ag⁺ → Ag
(c) Reduction of Cu²⁺ ions
(d) Oxidation of Cu atoms

443. Which of the compounds is known as Slaked lime?
(a) CaO
(b) CaSO₄
(c) CaCO₃
(d) Ca(OH)2

444. The critical volumes of four gases A, B, C, D are respectively 0.025 L, 0.312 L, 0.245 L, 0.432 L, the gas with highest value of van der waal constant b is:
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

445. Which thermodynamic function accounts automatically for enthalpy and entropy both?
(a) Helmholtz Free Energy (A)
(b) Internal Energy (E)
(c) Work Function
(d) Gibbs Free Energy

446. The overall rate of a reaction is governed by:
(a) the rate of fastest intermediate step
(b) the sum total of the rates of all intermediate steps
(c) the average of the rates of all the intermediate steps
(d) the rate of slowest intermediate step

447. How much electricity in terms of Faraday is required to produce 100 g of Ca from molten CaCl₂?
(a) 1F
(b) 2F
(c) 3F
(d) 5F

448. The distance between Na⁺ and Cl^– ions in NaCl with a density 2.165 g cm^-3 is _______.
(a) 564 pm
(b) 282 pm
(c) 234 pm
(d) 538 pm

449. Which of the following is not a method for coagulation of lyophobic sols?
(a) By electrophoresis
(b) By mixing oppositely charged sols
(c) By adding electrolyte
(d) By adding a protective colloid

450. At 15° C out of H₂, CH₄, CO₂, NH₃, which gas will be adsorbed maximum by charcoal?
(a) H₂
(b) CH₄
(c) CO₂
(d) NH₃

451. Name the structure of silicate in which two oxygen atoms of [SiO₄]^4- are shared.
(a) Pyrosilicate
(b) Sheet silicate
(c) Linear chain silicate
(d) Three dimensional silicate

452. Root mean square velocity of a gas is x ms^-1 at a pressure p atm and temperature T K. If pressure is made 2p under isothermal condition root mean square speed becomes:
(a) 2x
(b) 4x
(c) x/2
(d) x

453. The rms velocity of molecules of a gas of density 4 kg m^-3 and pressure 1.2 × 10⁵ Nm^-2 is:
(a) 900 ms^-1
(b) 120 ms^-1
(c) 600 ms^-1
(d) 300 ms^-1

454. If the kinetic energy of an electron is increased four times, the wavelength of the de-Broglie waveassociated with it would become:
(a) Two times
(b) Half
(c) One fourth
(d) Four times

455. According to Bohr’s theory, the angular momentum of an electron in 5^th order orbit is:
(a) 25 h/π
(b) 1.0 h/π
(c) 10 h/π
(d) 2.5 h/π

456. Which of the following statements in relation to the hydrogen atom is correct?
(a) 3s orbital is lower in energy than 3p orbital
(b) 3p orbital is lower in energy than 3d orbital
(c) 3s and 3p orbitals are of lower energy than 3d orbital
(d) 3s, 3p and 3d orbitals all have the same energy

457. According to the Periodic Law of elements, the variation in properties of elements is related to their:
(a) nuclear masses
(b) atomic numbers
(c) nuclear neutron-proton number ratios
(d) atomic masses

458. The order of increasing sizes of atomic radii among the elements O, S, Se and As is:
(a) As < S < O < Se
(b) O < S < As < Se
(c) Se < S < As < O
(d) O < S < Se < As

459. Beryllium and aluminium exhibit many properties which are similar. But the two elements differ in:
(a) exhibiting maximum covalency in compound
(b) exhibiting amphoteric nature in their oxides
(c) forming covalent halides
(d) forming polymeric hydrides

460. Which of the following atoms has the highest first ionization energy?
(a) Sc
(b) Rb
(c) Na
(d) K

461. The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that:
(a) Zr and Y have about the same radius
(b) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
(c) Zr and Hf have about the same radius
(d) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation

462. Iron exhibits +2 and +3 oxidation states. Which of the following statements about iron is incorrect?
(a) Ferrous oxide is more basic in nature than the ferric oxide
(b) Ferrous compounds are relatively more ionic than the corresponding ferric compounds
(c) Ferrous compounds are more easily hydrolysed than the corresponding ferric compounds
(d) Ferrous compounds are less volatile than the corresponding ferric compounds

463. Among the following, the species having the smallest bond is:
(a) NO
(b) NO⁺
(c) O₂
(d) NO

464. Based on lattice energy and other considerations, which one of the following alkali metal chlorides is expected tohave the highest melting point?
(a) NaCl
(b) KCl
(c) LiCl
(d) RbCl

465. Among the following the maximum covalent character is shown by the compound:
(a) AlCl₃
(b) MgCl₂
(c) FeCl₂
(d) SnCl₂

466. The number of types of bonds between two carbon atoms in calcium carbide is:
(a) One sigma, two pi
(b) One sigma, one pi
(c) Two sigma, one pi
(d) Two sigma, two pi

467. Which one of the following molecules is paramagnetic?
(a) NO
(b) O3
(c) N2
(d) CO

468. The catenation tendency of C, Si and Ge is in the order Ge < Si < C. The bond energies (in kJ mol-1 of C — C, Si —Si and Ge—Ge bonds are respectively:
(a) 348, 260, 297
(b) 348, 297, 260
(c) 297, 348, 260
(d) 260, 297, 348

469. The bond order in NO is 2.5 while that in NO+ is 3. Which of the following statements is true for these two species?
(a) Bond length in NO+ is greater than in NO
(b) Bond length is unpredictable
(c) Bond length in NO+ in equal to that in NO
(d) Bond length in NO is greater than in NO+

470. The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen in a particular gaseous mixture is 1 : 4. The ratio of number of their molecule is:
(a) 7 : 32
(b) 1 : 8
(c) 5: 13
(d) 9: 19

471. The density of a solution prepared by dissolving 120 g of urea (mol. mass = 60 u) in 1000 g of water is 1.15 g/mL. The molarity of this solution is:
(a) 2.05 M
(b) 0.50 M
(c) 1.75 M
(d) 1.02 M

472. Kinetic theory of gases proves:
(a) Only Boyle’s law
(b) Only Charle’s law
(c) Only Avogadro’s law
(d) All of these

473. Which one of the following is the wrong assumption of kinetic theory of gases?
(a) All the molecules move in a straight line between collision and with the same velocity
(b) Molecules are separated by great distances compared to their sizes
(c) Pressure is the result of elastic collision of molecules with the container’s wall
(d) Momentum and energy always remain conserved

474. The one that is extensively used as a piezo electric material is:
(a) mica
(b) trydymite
(c) quartz
(d) amorphous silica

475. Which primitive unit cell has unequal edge lengths and all axial lengths different from 90 degree?
(a) Monoclinic
(b) Triclinic
(c) Tetragonal
(d) Hexagonal

476. A pressure cooker reduces cooking time for food because:
(a) Heat is more evenly distributed in the cooking space
(b) B.P of water involved in cooking is increased
(c) The higher pressure inside the cooker crushes the food
(d) Cooking involves chemical changes helped by a rise in temperature

477. The enthalpy change for a reaction does not depend upon:
(a) use of different reactants for the same product
(b) the nature of intermediate reaction steps
(c) the physical states of reactants and products
(d) the differences in initial or final temperature of involved substances

478. Identify the correct statement regarding a spontaneous process:
(a) Exothermic processes are always spontaneous
(b) Endothermic processes are never spontaneous
(c) Lowering of energy in the reaction process is the only criterion for spontaneity
(d) For a spontaneous process in an isolated system, the change in entropy is positive

479. The enthalpy change for a reaction does not depend upon the:
(a) physical states of reactants and products
(b) use of different reactants for the same product
(c) nature of intermediate reaction steps
(d) difference in initial or final temperatures of involved substances

480. If an endothermic reaction is non-spontaneous at freezing point of water and becomes feasible at its boiling point,then:

(a) ∆H is –ve, ∆S is +ve
(b) ∆H and ∆S both are +ve
(c) ∆H and ∆S both are –ve
(d) ∆H is +ve, ∆S is –ve

481. Identify the correct statement regarding a spontaneous process:

(a) Lowering of energy in the reaction process is the only criterion for spontaneity
(b) For a spontaneous process in an isolated system, the change in entropy is positive
(c) Endothermic processes are never spontaneous
(d) Exothermic processes are always spontaneous

482. An ideal gas undergoes isothermal expansion at constant pressure. During the process:

(a) enthalpy increases but entropy decreases
(b) enthalpy remains constant but entropy increases
(c) enthalpy decreases but entropy increases
(d) both enthalpy and entropy remain constant

483. Which one of the following substances has the highest proton affinity?

(a) H₂S
(b) NH₃
(c) PH₃
(d) H₂O

484. When rain is accompanied by a thunderstorm, the collected rainwater will have a pH value:

(a) slightly lower than that of rainwater without a thunderstorm
(b) slightly higher than that when the thunderstorm is not there
(c) uninfluenced by the occurrence of a thunderstorm
(d) which depends on the amount of dust in the air

485. The increase of pressure on ice water system at constant temperature will lead to:

(a) no effect on that equilibrium
(b) a decrease in the entropy of the system
(c) a shift of the equilibrium in the forward direction
(d) an increase in the Gibbs energy of the system

486. The pH of rain water is approximately:

(a) 7.5
(b) 6.5
(c) 7.0
(d) 5.6

487. Which of the following is a redox reaction?
(a) NaCl + KNO₃ → NaNO₃ + KCl
(b) CaC₂O₄ + 2HCl → CaCl₂ + H₂C₂O₄
(c) Mg(OH)₂ + 2NH₄Cl → MgCl₂ + 2NH₄OH
(d) Zn + 2AgCN → 2Ag + Zn(CN)₂

488. The highest electrical conductivity of the following aqueous solutions is of:
(a) 1 M acetic acid
(b) 1 M chloroacetic acid
(c) 1 M fluoroacetic acid
(d) 1 M difluoroacetic acid

489. The oxidation state of chromium in the final product formed by the reaction between KI and acidified potassium dichromate solution is:
(a) +4
(b) +6
(c) +2
(d) +3

490. Determine the total number of neutrons in three isotopes of hydrogen:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

491. The isotopes of hydrogen are:
(a) protium, deuterium and tritium
(b) protium and deuterium only
(c) deuterium and tritium only
(d) tritium and protium only

492. The synonym for water gas, when used in the production of methanol, is:
(a) fuel gas
(b) natural gas
(c) laughing gas
(d) syngas

493. NaH is an example of:
(a) metallic hydride
(b) saline hydride
(c) electron-rich hydride
(d) molecular hydride

494. Very pure hydrogen (99.9%) can be made by which of the following processes?
(a) Reaction of salt like hydrides with water
(b) Reaction of methane with steam
(c) Mixing natural hydrocarbons of high molecular weight
(d) Electrolysis of water

495. Which physical property of dihydrogen is wrong?

(a) Colourless gas
(b) Odourless gas
(c) Tasteless gas
(d) Non-inflammable gas

496. The metal that gives hydrogen gas upon treatment with both acid, as well as base, is:

(a) magnesium
(b) zinc
(c) mercury
(d) iron

497. The metal that cannot be obtained by electrolysis of an aqueous solution of its salt is:

(a) Cr
(b) Ag
(c) Ca
(d) Cu

498. Based on lattice energy and other considerations, which one of the following alkali metal chlorides is expected tohave the highest melting point?

(a) RbCl
(b) LiCl
(c) KCl
(d) NaCl

499. Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of:

(a) Nuclear fission
(b) Natural radioactivity
(c) Nuclear fusion
(d) Artificial radioactivity

500. Which one has the highest boiling point?

(a) Kr
(b) Xe
(c) He
(d) Ne

501. Chlorine water on standing loses its colour and forms:

(a) HCl and HClO₂
(b) HCl only
(c) HOCl and HOCl₂
(d) HCl and HOCl

Answer Key

1- d	2- a	3- a	4- c	5- c	6- b	7- a	8- d
9- c	10- b	11- a	12- b	13- d	14- b	15- a	16- c
17- b	18- a	19- c	20- b	21- b	22- d	23- c	24- a
25- a	26- b	27- c	28- b	29- d	30- a	31- a	32- b
33- c	34- c	35- b	36- b	37- d	38- d	39- b	40- b
41- b	42- c	43- a	44- c	45- c	46- d	47- d	48- b
49- c	50- b	51- a	52- c	53- b	54- b	55- b	56- c
57- b	58- d	59- b	60- b	61- d	62- d	63- b	64- c
65- a	66- b	67- d	68- d	69- c	70- a	71- b	72- a
73- c	74- b	75- c	76- b	77- d	78- a	79- a	80- c
81- b	82- d	83- b	84- a	85- b	86- b	87- d	88- b
89- b	90- b	91- a	92- b	93- b	94- c	95- b	96- b
97- a	98- b	99- c	100- b	101- c	102- b	103- c	104- b
105- d	106- d	107- b	108- d	109- c	110- a	111- c	112- d
113- b	114- a	115- c	116- b	117- c	118- a	119- b	120- c
121- a	122- c	123- c	124- d	125- c	126- a	127- a	128- a
129- a	130- b	131- d	132- c	133- a	134- b	135- b	136- c
137- d	138- d	139- a	140- b	141- c	142- b	143- b	144- d
145- a	146- c	147- b	148- c	149- d	150- a	151- c	152- c
153- c	154- b	155- c	156- c	157- d	158- a	159- a	160- c
161- c	162- c	163- b	164- a	165- d	166- b	167- c	168- d
169- c	170- c	171- a	172- a	173- d	174- a	175- c	176- d
177- a	178- b	179- c	180- a	181- a	182- b	183- c	184- d
185- a	186- c	187- d	188- c	189- b	190- c	191- d	192- a
193- d	194- b	195- b	196- a	197- a	198- c	199- a	200- a

201- d	202- d	203- c	204- b	205- a	206- b	207- b	208- b
209- b	210- c	211- c	212- a	213- a	214- b	215- d	216- a
217- a	218- c	219- b	220- d	221- c	222- a	223- d	224- a
225- c	226- d	227- c	228- a	229- a	230- a	231- c	232- c
233- a	234- c	235- d	236- a	237- c	238- c	239- d	240- d
241- b	242- c	243- a	244- a	245- c	246- b	247- b	248- c
249- d	250- a	251- a	252- a	253- a	254- a	255- c	256- d
257- c	258- c	259- a	260- a	261- c	262- a	263- b	264- c
265- c	266- a	267- c	268- a	269- c	270- b	271- c	272- b
273- a	274- b	275- d	276- a	277- c	278- d	279- a	280- c
281- a	282- c	283- a	284- c	285- d	286- d	287- b	288- a
289- c	290- d	291- c	292- c	293- c	294- a	295- b	296- b
297- b	298- c	299- c	300- c	301- a	302- b	303- c	304- b
305- c	306- a	307- a	308- c	309- b	310- b	311- d	312- a
313- b	314- b	315- b	316- a	317- d	318- d	319- b	320- b
321- c	322- a	323- a	324- d	325- b	326- d	327- b	328- c
329- b	330- c	331- c	332- d	333- a	334- d	335- b	336- c
337- b	338- d	339- d	340- d	341- d	342- c	343- c	344- d
345- d	346- b	347- a	348- a	349- c	350- c	351- c	352- d
353- a	354- a	355- c	356- a	357- b	358- d	359- a	360- d
361- a	236- d	363- a	364- d	365- c	366- c	367- b	368- c
369- a	370- a	371- b	372- b	373- d	374- b	375- a	376- c
377- b	378- b	379- a	380- b	381- c	382- c	383- d	384- d
385- b	386- b	387- b	388- c	389- d	390- a	391- b	392- d
393- c	394- c	395- a	396- d	397- b	398- d	399- d	400- c
401- b	402- d	403- a	404- c	405- b	406- a	407- c	408- c
409- a	410- a	411- c	412- b	413- b	414- d	415- d	416- c

417- c	418- d	419- a	420- b	421- a	422- d	423- a	424- d
425- d	426- b	427- c	428- b	429- a	430- d	431- b	432- a
433- a	434- c	435- d	436- c	437- b	438- a	439- c	440- a
441- b	442- d	443- d	444- d	445- d	446- d	447- d	448- b
449- d	450- d	451- c	452- d	453- d	454- b	455- d	456- d
457- b	458- d	459- d	460- a	461- c	462- c	463- b	464- a
465- a	466- a	467- a	468- b	469- d	470- a	471- a	472- d
473- a	474- c	475- b	476- b	477- b	478- d	479- c	480- b
481- b	482- b	483- b	484- a	485- c	486- d	487- d	488- d
489- d	490- c	491- a	492- d	493- b	494- d	495- d	496- b
497- c	498- d	499- c	500- b	501- d

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